Why I Don’t
Celebrate Easter
COPYRIGHT ©2019 -
James M. Frye
All scripture
quotations are taken from the Authorized King James Bible. Any deviations are
not intentional. All underlines, bold and words within brackets are the
author's.
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THE WORD “EASTER” IN SCRIPTURE
No teaching regarding "Easter" would be
complete without first addressing what scripture says regarding the word, since
it does appear in scripture.
Acts 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and
delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after
EASTER to bring him forth to the people.
What does "Easter" refer to in the above
passage? There are two main teachings regarding this, both of which are WRONG.
THE FIRST FALSE TEACHING
The first false teaching comes from many who are
King James Only as I am. This teaching says that "Easter" here is a
reference to a pagan holiday which Herod was supposedly celebrating. I used to
believe this interpretation, but as I continued to study, I became convinced
that this interpretation is not correct. For starters, the context makes it
clear that the Jews were celebrating the day in question and that Herod was
only waiting until after this day to kill Peter to please the Jews. Herod was
not celebrating the day, the Jews were.
Secondly, this interpretation is dependent upon the
false assertion that the word “passover” only ever
refers to a single day which takes place PRIOR TO the Feast of Unleavened Bread
and that the term passover NEVER refers to the Feast
of Unleavened Bread. Scripture refutes this.
Luke 22:1 Now THE FEAST OF
UNLEAVENED BREAD drew nigh, WHICH IS CALLED THE PASSOVER.
The Feast of Unleavened Bread is called the
“Passover” in scripture. So both of the two supporting assertions, upon which
this teaching is based, are NOT TRUE, therefore, we must reject this teaching
as false.
THE SECOND FALSE TEACHING
The second false teaching comes from those who
accuse the King James Bible of containing errors. They rightly point out that
the Greek word which was translated by the translators here is "pascha". But then they go on to mistakenly declare
that this word may ONLY be translated as "passover"
which is NOT correct.
THE WORD "EASTER" IS NOT A TRANSLATION
ERROR.
Some have suggested that the word "Easter"
in this verse is a mistranslation in the King James Bible. Anyone who suggests
this either has ulterior motives (people who oppose the KJV), or is simply
unaware of the history of early English Bible translations. The Greek word
"pascha" was not only translated as Easter
in the Authorized Version (KJV) of 1611, it was also translated that way in
Tyndale's translation of 1525, the Coverdale Bible of 1535, The Great Bible of
1540, Matthew's Bible of 1549, the Bishop's Bible of 1568, the first printing
of the Geneva Bible of 1557. etc.. Most of the early
English translations translated "pasha" as Easter here.
The word "pascha"
occurs 29 times in the Greek New Testament. Tyndale translated it as Ester,
Ester Lamb, or some of other derivation of Easter EVERY SINGLE TIME. In his
German translation of 1522, Martin Luther did the exact same thing using the
German word for Easter (Ostern - or a derivation
thereof) throughout the New Testament. Were all of these translators
unlearned and ignorant men who didn't know any better? Anyone who has studied
the history of these matters knows that these men were very gifted scholars and
knew exactly what they were doing.
After finishing the New Testament, Tyndale started
translating the Old Testament. When he came across the Hebrew word "pecach", instead of translating it as Easter, he coined
a new word "passover". This is where the
English word passover comes
from. The word "passover" did not exist
until Tyndale created it. The KJV translators used the new word passover in both the Old and New
Testaments, the only exception being Acts 12:4 where they retained the word
"Easter". Why did they use Easter here and not in the other places?
It seems that they did so because this was the only mention of the actual
occurrence of the day of "pascha" AFTER
Jesus had died fulfilling the type and shadow of the passover lamb (1 Cor. 5:7).
These facts can only lead to one conclusion. Easter
was not only an acceptable translation of the Greek word "pascha" in the days in which the King James Bible was
translated, it was the preferred translation. Why did they translate it that
way? The answer is obvious. That is what the word meant back then. The term
Easter was used to refer to the Jewish "pascha"
which had now been fulfilled in Christ. Given the above evidence, one could
hardly come to any other conclusion. So, is it an error for the KJV translators
to have translated "pascha" as Easter in
Acts 12:4? Not on your life! Even today, if you look up the word "pascha" in most good "Greek to English"
dictionaries you will see that it comes up with two meanings: 1. Passover and
2. Easter.
THERE ARE TWO "EASTERS"
None of what has been written above denies the fact
that there is another "pagan Easter", Bede being one of the earliest
source references to this fact. The information attesting to this fact can be
confirmed by many online resources and encyclopedias. What does this mean? It
means that there are two Easters. The same word was used, not only for the
pagan celebration with their bunnies, eggs, and other fertility symbols, but
also for the Jewish Passover having now been fulfilled in Christ.
IS IT OKAY TO CELEBRATE EASTER?
Since there are two Easters, let's answer this
question regarding each of them separately.
IS IT OKAY TO CELEBRATE PAGAN EASTER?
No, it is not. The occurrence of the word
"Easter" in the Authorized Version (King James Bible) in Acts 12:4 does not legitimize the celebration of pagan Easter with its
bunnies, Easter egg hunts, etc. in churches. The Bible is clear that we may NOT
take pagan religious practices such as these and try to "Christianize"
them. This is clearly forbidden by scripture (Deut. 12:30-31). Scripture
teaches that we may not worship the true God in any way which was formerly used
by pagans to worship their false gods. The same principle which is set forth in
my article regarding the celebration of Christmas applies here as well.
http://www.seekingfortruth.com/articles/christmas.htm
IS IT OKAY TO CELEBRATE THE FULFILLED PASSOVER
YEARLY?
No, scripture does NOT authorize the yearly
celebration of Christ's resurrection in the name of "Easter". Such a
practice is unbiblical. The early Christians in scripture did NOT celebrate
Christ's resurrection annually. Only God can create religious Holy Days and He
has NOT done so, therefore, no man has the right to do so. The Bible clearly
teaches that believers are no longer to keep "religious days" (Gal.
4:10-11). Therefore, being without scriptural precedent, such a practice is a
tradition of men (Mark 7:6-8) and is condemned by scripture.
The link below is to one of the most important
articles I have ever written. It explains, from scripture, why all of our
religious church practices must come from scripture or they are forbidden.
http://www.seekingfortruth.com/articles/regprinc.htm