Does the Bible
Teach Predestination?
COPYRIGHT ©2012
- James M. Frye
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scripture quotations are taken from the Authorized King James Bible. Any
deviations are not intentional. All underlines, bold and words within brackets
are the author's.
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Introduction
Does
the Bible teach predestination? I have discussed this issue with many over the
years and often people will tell me that they don’t believe the Bible teaches
predestination. When I hear someone say that, I will often ask them about the
following verses.
Eph.
1:4-5 According
as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should
be holy and without blame before him in love: Having predestinated us
unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good
pleasure of his will,
Eph.
1:11 In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated
according to the purpose of him who worketh all
things after the counsel of his own will:
Rom.
8:29 For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be
conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many
brethren.
Rom.
8:30 Moreover
whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them
he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.
Clearly,
the Bible does teach predestination. Everyone who believes the Bible
must acknowledge this. A person may not yet understand “what” the Bible teaches
regarding predestination, but if they are honest they must acknowledge that the
Bible does teach it.
In
this study, we will be looking to scripture to see what the Bible teaches
regarding this subject. To those of us who are Bible-believing Christians, it
will always be our goal to believe whatever the Bible teaches on a matter
whether it lines up with the teachings of men (preachers, teachers, and
churches) or not.
Please
read this article in its entirety, as some of the most important points will
not be made until much later on in the article. May God lead each of us into
all truth!
What is
Predestination?
Since
the Bible does teach predestination, that naturally leads to our next question.
What is predestination? Before we move on to see what all the scriptures
teach us regarding this doctrine, there are a number of things we can learn
from the passages mentioned in the introduction.
I.
Predestination is something that God does. In all four of the previous verses,
it is God who does the predestinating. Predestination is an act of God (not
man).
II.
It is people (not events) that are predestinated. Notice the pronouns used in
these verses (“us”, “we”, “whom”, and “them”). It is people who have been
predestinated.
III.
Predestination involves God choosing certain people.
Eph.
1:4-5 According
as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we
should be holy and without blame before him in love: Having predestinated
us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the
good pleasure of his will,
IV.
These people were predestinated to be adopted as God’s children (saved).
Eph.
1:5 Having predestinated us unto
the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to
the good pleasure of his will,
Romans
8:15 For ye have not received the spirit of bondage again to fear;
but ye have received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we cry, Abba,
Father.
V.
Predestination took place before the foundation of the world.
Eph.
1:4-5 According
as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we
should be holy and without blame before him in love: Having predestinated
us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the
good pleasure of his will,
Predestination
involves God choosing certain people to be His children (be saved) before the
foundation of the world.
VI.
We must understand the meaning of the word “predestination”. The word
predestination is made up of two parts. The root word “destination” refers to a
place or state to be arrived at. The prefix “pre” (meaning before or
beforehand) indicates that God predetermined these individuals’ destination
beforehand.
That
destination, as we saw above, is being adopted as a child of God (salvation).
Eph.
1:5 Having predestinated us unto
the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the
good pleasure of his will,
We
will present a more complete definition of predestination later on, but based
upon what we have learned so far, we could begin with the following preliminary
definition.
Predestination
is an act of God whereby He chose certain people to be adopted as His children
(be saved) before the foundation of the world.
What Else Does
the Bible Teach About Predestination?
The
following is a list of things the Bible teaches which relate to the matter of
predestination.
1.
In his unregenerate, lost state, unsaved man is spiritually blind and cannot
understand the things of God nor even see (perceive) things concerning the
kingdom of God.
1
Cor. 2:14
But the natural man receiveth not
the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can
he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
The
“natural man” is the unsaved man, the man who hasn’t been born again
(regenerated) by the Spirit of God. What does this passage say about him? It
says that he will not receive the things of the Spirit of God (including
the gospel – 1 Cor. 1:18) but thinks they are foolish. It says that he can’t
(is unable to) understand them. How, then, could an unregenerate person repent
and believe the gospel? They can’t. Not unless God first regenerates them.
John
3:3
Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see
the kingdom of God.
Once
again we see that unless a man is first born again (regenerated), that person cannot
even see (perceive/understand) things concerning the kingdom of God. This isn’t
talking about literally seeing with physical eyes, for Jesus said that the
Kingdom of God is a spiritual kingdom that can’t be seen with physical eyes
(Luke 17:20-21). The word “see” here is used in a spiritual sense and refers to
“seeing through the eyes of faith” (2 Cor. 4:18). So, according to this verse,
unless a person is first regenerated by the Spirit of God, that person cannot
understand the gospel and the things concerning the kingdom of God (the gospel
is about the kingdom of God – Matt. 24:14).
Eph.
4:17-18
This I say therefore, and testify in the Lord, that ye henceforth walk not as
other Gentiles walk, in the vanity of their mind, Having the understanding
darkened, being alienated from the life of God through the ignorance that is in
them, because of the blindness of their heart:
2.
Unless God draws a person (savingly), no man can
(has the ability) to come to Christ in salvation.
John
6:44
-- No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw
him: and I will raise him up at the last day.
Notice, that just like two of the
verses above, this verse uses the word “can”. It says that no man “can” come.
It doesn’t say that no man “may” come. Most of us will remember the distinction
between these two words from our school years. A student would raise their hand
in class and say, “Can I go to the bathroom?” to which the teacher would
sarcastically reply, “I am sure you can.” The student then realizing that they
had used incorrect English would then ask, “May I go to the bathroom?”
The word “may” has to do with
permission, but the word “can” has to do with ability. This verse tells us that
no man can (has the ability) to come to God in salvation unless God
draws him. And as we shall see in a later point, God doesn’t draw/call
everyone.
It is at this point that those who
reject the Bible’s teaching on predestination often begin to mischaracterize
and misrepresent the teaching. They paint the picture that predestination would
mean that there would be huge numbers of poor lost souls who want to be saved
but can’t because God won’t let them. Nothing could be further from the truth
and that is not what the Bible teaches about predestination.
The Bible not only teaches that a
person cannot come to God unless God first draws them. It also teaches
that these same people will not come because they don’t want to.
John
5:40 And ye will not come to me, that ye might have
life.
The above verse tells us that those who
don’t come to Christ in salvation don’t come because they will not come.
It is not something they are “willing” to do (more about this in point 4). As
we saw from scripture earlier, in their lost state unregenerate men think that
the things of the Spirit of God (including the gospel) are foolish. Because of
the ignorance that is in them and the blindness of their heart, they can’t see
the truth and, therefore, they willfully reject it.
John
6:65
-- And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto
me, except it were given unto him of my Father.
Once
again, no man can come to God in salvation unless it “were” (already,
previously) given by God for him to do so. This statement would make absolutely
no sense if God had given all men to come to Him savingly
(as many teach). As we shall see in our next point, God doesn’t call all men savingly.
3.
God does not call all men savingly.
Rom.
8:28
And we know that all things work together for good to
them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose.
If there are some who are “the called”,
doesn’t that imply that there are others who are not called?
1 Cor. 1:26-29
26 For ye see
your calling, brethren, how that not many wise men after the
flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called:
27 But God
hath chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise; and God
hath chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are
mighty;
28 And base
things of the world, and things which are despised, hath God chosen,
yea, and things which are not, to bring to nought
things that are:
29 That no flesh
should glory in his presence.
The
above passage clearly states that God doesn’t call all men savingly. Since no man can come unto God in
salvation unless God does call him, this demonstrates the truthfulness of
predestination.
4.
God's choice in choosing/electing some unto salvation while passing over others
has nothing to do with the will of man.
Rom.
9:15-16
For he saith
to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have
compassion on whom I will have compassion. So then it is not
of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth
mercy.
The context of the above passages has
to do with predestination and election (Rom. 9:11). We will be looking at
Romans chapter 9 more completely in point 10, but for now notice that scripture
says that God’s choice in electing some to salvation and not others is not based
upon the will of man.
Many in our day teach that God looked
out into the future to see who would choose to believe in Him and then chose them
to be saved. This passage clearly refutes such a teaching. God’s predestinating
and electing some to salvation has nothing to do with the will of man.
That wouldn’t be “pre-destination but post-destination. It wouldn’t be God
determining people’s destination beforehand, but man determining his own
destination and God simply rubber stamping the choice. That is not only
contrary to the teaching of scripture, but also relegates the sovereign God of
the universe to the role of a common clerk.
John
1:13
Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the
flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.
This
passage has to do with regeneration (being born again). It tells us that
regeneration has nothing to do with the will of man but is the act of a
sovereign God. People in our day write books or pamphlets about “How to be born
again” or “What you must do to be born again”. But according to scripture,
regeneration in the new birth is something that God does - not man.
According
to Jesus, it is God’s choice (not man’s) that comes first. Men do indeed choose
to believe in Jesus but only after Jesus had first chosen them.
5.
The Bible says that people believe (and are saved) because they were
chosen by God - NOT that they were chosen by God because they would believe.
Acts
13:48
And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and
glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained to eternal life
believed.
They were ordained to eternal life before
they believed.
John
10:26-27
But ye believe not, because ye are
not of my sheep, as I said unto you. My sheep hear my voice, and I know
them, and they follow me:
These people did not believe because
they were not His sheep. It doesn’t say they were not His sheep because
they didn’t believe. The fact that they are not a sheep (one of the elect) came
before, and is the reason why they did not believe.
6.
God brings people savingly to Himself by opening
their heart (thus renewing their wills) that they might believe. Thus both
faith and repentance are gifts from God.
Acts
16:14
And a certain woman named Lydia, a seller of purple, of the city of Thyatira,
which worshipped God, heard us: whose heart the Lord opened, that
she attended unto the things which were spoken of Paul.
Why did Lydia believe the gospel when
Paul preached it unto her? This verse says that she believed because God opened
her heart. This opening of the heart refers to regeneration (being born again)
which we discussed earlier. God opened her heart “that” (in order that) she
would believe. If God had not opened her heart, she would not have believed.
2
Tim. 2:25
In meekness instructing those that oppose themselves; if
God peradventure will give them repentance to the
acknowledging of the truth;
God
must give people repentance or they will not repent. Scripture teaches that
both repentance and faith are gifts from God.
Philippians
1:29 For
unto you it is given in the behalf of Christ, not only to believe on
him, but also to suffer for his sake;
Why
doesn’t everyone repent and believe the gospel? Not every
one repents and believes because God has not chosen to give faith and
repentance to all.
1
John 5:20
And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an
understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him
that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal
life.
7.
All men who are called of God will come unto Him in salvation. All of
the elect will be saved and none will be lost.
John
6:37
All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that
cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.
As we saw in point number 2, no man can
come unto God in salvation except those whom God has given to come to Him. This
passage speaks of these same people – the elect. It is they whom the Father has
given unto the son. And all of them shall come to Christ in salvation.
And those who come will not be cast out.
Do you see the significance of this?
1. No one can come to God in salvation
except those who were given to come.
2. God has not chosen to call everyone.
3. All those who are called shall come
to Him (in salvation).
4. Those who come shall not be cast out
(no one loses their salvation).
So who will become saved? – Those, and
only those, who were predestinated by God unto salvation.
Rom.
8:28
And we know that all things work together for good to
them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose.
Rom.
8:29
For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate
to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among
many brethren.
Rom.
8:30
Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he
called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also
glorified.
Notice
the unbreakable links in the above chain. There are a people referred to as
“the called” (the elect). These are those whom God has chosen to call savingly before the foundation of the world.
1.
All of the elect (the called) God foreknew (chose to know savingly)
2.
All those whom He foreknew, He did also predestinate.
3.
All those whom He did predestinate, He also called (chose to call in time).
4.
All those whom He called, He also justified (chose to save in time).
5.
All those whom He justified, He also glorified (determined to give an immortal
resurrection body in which to dwell eternally with God).
Do
you see it? Only those who are called are foreknown and predestinated. And all
that are predestinated get saved and make it to glory - Them and only them.
There are none who were called or foreknown except those who make it to heaven
- none.
8.
Those who don’t truly believe in Christ don’t believe because they were
appointed by God to destruction.
1
Pet. 2:8
And a stone of stumbling, and a rock of offence, even to them which stumble at
the word, being disobedient: whereunto also they were appointed.
Why do some stumble at the word and not
believe and obey it? They do so because they were appointed thereunto. God does
not make them sin but rather gives them over to their own sinfulness. By
choosing not to grant them repentance and faith, God appointed them to
condemnation.
Jude
1:4
For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were
before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men,
turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord
God, and our Lord Jesus Christ.
Once
again, these false teachers who will be condemned were of old “ordained”
(chosen) to that condemnation. There are two parts to predestination: election
and reprobation. The two passages above are speaking of reprobation.
Election
is “active”, but reprobation is “passive”. In election, God “actively” chose
the elect to be saved. He then, actively
regenerates/draws/calls them unto Himself (savingly)
in time. But in reprobation, God chose to pass over the non-elect. He
instead gives them over to their own blindness and hardness of heart (Rom.
1:28) thus allowing them to reject Him and go to their just condemnation.
God
is not obligated to save anyone. He could have chosen to not elect and
predestinate anyone to salvation, but could have justly sent everyone to hell.
However, in a demonstration of his sovereign mercy, God chose to save
some.
Rom.
9:21-23
Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same
lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another
unto dishonour? What if God, willing to shew his
wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels
of wrath fitted to destruction: And that he might make
known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had
afore prepared unto glory,
We will see more about this in point
10.
9.
Since none of these things are of man, God alone gets the glory for people's
salvation.
1
Cor. 1:26-27,29 For ye see your calling, brethren, how that not many
wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are
called: But God hath chosen the foolish things of the world to
confound the wise; and God hath chosen the weak things of the world to
confound the things which are mighty; … That no flesh
should glory in his presence.
1
Cor. 4:7
For who maketh thee to
differ from another? and what hast thou that thou
didst not receive? now if thou didst receive it, why
dost thou glory, as if thou hadst not received it?
Eph.
2:8-9
For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not
of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should
boast.
10.
The teaching of Romans chapter 9.
Let’s
take a brief look at verses 11-24 of this chapter.
Rom.
9:11-13
11
(For
the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the
purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of
him that calleth;)
12 It was said
unto her, The elder shall serve the younger.
13 As it is
written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated.
According
to the above passage, God sovereignly chose, according to His purpose in
election, to set His (saving) love upon Jacob and not upon Esau - before
they were born.
Paul
then anticipates man's sinful reaction to this:
Rom.
9:14-15
14 What shall we
say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid.
15 For he saith to Moses, I will have
mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have
compassion.
If
Paul was teaching that God chose people based upon His foreseeing they would
choose Him, why does he anticipate this objection here? After all, who would
accuse God of unrighteousness in doing that? No, this objection only makes sense
if we correctly understand what Paul is saying here. God sovereignly chose,
according to His purpose in election, to set His (saving) love upon Jacob and not
upon Esau - before they were born.
And
man sinfully cries out, "That would make God unrighteous!" But Paul
says that God is not obligated to have mercy upon anyone but is rather
free and sovereign to either have (or not have) mercy upon whomsoever He wills.
And God chose (elected) to have mercy upon Jacob and not upon Esau. Some
get mercy, some get justice, no one gets injustice.
Rom.
9:16
So then it is not of him that willeth,
nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy.
Please
read the above verse carefully. Election (God's choosing of some to salvation)
has nothing to do with the will of man (as in God looking into the future to
see who would “will” to choose Him). Salvation is proclaimed to whomsoever will
but, left unto himself and apart from regeneration, sinful man will never
choose God (Rom. 3:11).
Rom.
9:17-18
17 For the
scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same
purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my
name might be declared throughout all the earth.
18 Therefore hath
he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.
God
has sovereignly chosen to have mercy on some, but the hearts of others He has
chosen to harden (passively give them over to their own hardeness).
Rom.
9:19
Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find
fault? For who hath resisted his will?
Paul
once again anticipates man's sinful reaction to this. What is Paul's answer?
Rom.
9:20-21
20 Nay but, O
man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall
the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast
thou made me thus?
21 Hath not the
potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
Does
God not have the right? Does He not have the right to take some from among the
lump of lost humanity and make them vessels unto honor by shedding His grace
and mercy upon them, all the while passing over others and leaving them in
their sins as vessels of dishonor? Of course He does! Many today would
rebelliously seek to forbid God this right, but it is His none-the-less. And
why has God chosen to do this?
Rom.
9:22-24
22 What if God,
willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much
longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:
23 And that he
might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had
afore prepared unto glory,
24 Even us, whom
he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
That
is why He did it.
Common
Objections
Despite
what the scriptures say, some will object to the Bible’s teaching regarding predestination.
In this section we examine a few of the more common objections.
Objection
#1
– Some say that predestination involved God looking out into the future to see
who would believe in Him and that predestination is simply God choosing those
whom He knew would choose Him.
Such
a view can’t be reconciled with the scriptures.
A.
It is a violation of almost every scriptural teaching regarding this matter
which has been set forth in this article.
In
this article, we have presented ten points of doctrine regarding predestination
and have backed each with scriptural proof. The incorrect belief that God
looked out into the future to see who would believe in Him and then
predestinated them - is contradicted by most every point. A person can’t hold
to such a view without being forced to deny or explain away what scripture
teaches in all these places. Not only that, they must be able to explain how
all these scriptures do not mean what they clearly say.
Rom.
8:29
For whom he did foreknow, he also
did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the
firstborn among many brethren.
What
was it that God foreknew in this passage? Where does it say that God foreknew
certain events would come to pass (as in which people would believe in him)? It
doesn’t. Where does it speak of "foreseen faith"? It doesn't. It does
not say that God foreknew future "events" at all. It says that
God foreknew people (“whom He did foreknow”).
Rom.
11:2
God hath not cast away his people which he foreknew.
Wot ye not what the scripture saith
of Elias? how he maketh
intercession to God against Israel, saying,
It
is people that God foreknew, not events, not faith, but people.
In Scripture the words "know" and "knew" often speak of a
close personal intimate relationship (Gen. 4:17). When it comes to salvation
and predestination, the word is used the same way. God “knows” people savingly.
John
17:3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the
only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.
John
10:27
My sheep hear my voice, and I know them,
and they follow me:
Matt.
7:21-23
Not every one that saith
unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth
the will of my Father which is in heaven. Many will say to me in that day,
Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in
thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done
many wonderful works? And then will I profess unto them, I never knew
you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.
Luke
13:25-27
When once the master of the house is risen up, and hath shut to the door, and
ye begin to stand without, and to knock at the door, saying, Lord, Lord, open
unto us; and he shall answer and say unto you, I know you not
whence ye are: Then shall ye begin to say, We have eaten and drunk in thy
presence, and thou hast taught in our streets. But he shall say, I tell you, I
know you not whence ye are; depart from me, all ye workers of
iniquity.
1
John 2:3-4
And hereby we do know that we know him,
if we keep his commandments. He that saith, I know
him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a liar,
and the truth is not in him.
2
Thess. 1:7-8
And to you who are troubled rest with us, when the Lord Jesus shall be revealed
from heaven with his mighty angels, In flaming fire taking vengeance on them
that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus
Christ:
In
each of the above passages the word "know" is used in a saving way.
There are some whom God chose to know savingly before
the foundation of the world (Eph. 1:4). These are the elect (Rom. 8:33). These
are those whom are chosen unto salvation (2 Thess. 2:13). These are those whom
God foreknew (Rom. 8:29). The elect are those whom God chose to know savingly before the world began. These are those "whom
he did foreknow". Those whom God does not know, and never knew, are the
non-elect.
Objection
#2
– Some say that God desires to, and is trying to, save everyone, therefore,
predestination can’t be true.
As
we have already seen, predestination is true and scripture teaches much about
it. So a person who rejects the doctrine of predestination is forced to deny or
explain away what the Bible teaches in many places. But what about this idea
that God is trying to save everyone? Does such a view line up with the
scriptures?
Scripture
makes it clear that God is not trying to save everyone. Let me offer
three passages of scripture as proof of this fact (there are many others).
Passage
Number 1:
John 12:37-40
37 But though he
had done so many miracles before them, yet they believed not on him:
38 That the
saying of Esaias the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spake,
Lord, who hath believed our report? and to
whom hath the arm of the Lord been revealed?
39 Therefore they
could not believe, because that Esaias said again,
40 He [God]
hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see
with their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be converted, and I
should heal them.
Doesn't
this passage say?
1.
Although Jesus did many miracles, certain people didn’t believe on him because
the arm of the Lord had not been revealed to them.
2.
Therefore, they could not believe.
3.
Because God blinded their eyes.
4.
God hardened their heart.
5.
God did this so they would not see (the truth).
6.
Nor understand (the truth).
7.
God did this to prevent them from being converted (saved).
Think
about it. If God were trying to save everyone, why would He ever harden a
person's heart or blind a person’s eyes to the truth?
Passage
Number 2:
Romans 11:4-8
4 But what saith the answer of God unto him? I [God] have reserved to
myself seven thousand men, who have not bowed the knee to the image of Baal.
5 Even so then
at this present time also there is a remnant according to the election
of grace.
6 And if by
grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it
be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work.
7 What then?
Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for;
but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded
8 (According as
it is written, God hath given them the spirit of slumber, eyes that they
should not see, and ears that they should not hear;) unto this day.
Doesn't
this passage say?
1)
God reserved 7,000 people who otherwise would have worshiped Baal (not because
they didn’t worship Baal).
2)
This was due to election.
3)
The elect obtained (salvation).
4)
The rest didn’t because they were blinded by God.
5)
God gave them the spirit of slumber.
6)
God gave them eyes that they should not see.
7)
God gave them ears that they should not hear.
Passage
Number 3 : Mark 4:11-12
11 And he said
unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of
the kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done
in parables:
12 That
[in order that] seeing they may see, and not perceive; and hearing they
may hear, and not understand; lest [unless] at any time they should be
converted, and their sins should be forgiven them.
Doesn't
this passage say?
1)
Jesus hid the truth from people.
2)
He did it so that they would not see.
3)
So they would not hear.
4)
So they would not understand.
5)
So they would not be converted (saved).
6)
So that their sins would not be forgiven them.
Considering
the three passages listed above, how can anyone suggest that it is God's plan
to try and save everyone? Don't these passages say that God blinded people and
hardened their hearts so that they would not believe and be saved? Yes,
they do.
But
doesn’t 2 Peter 3:9 say that Jesus is trying to save everyone?
No,
it doesn’t. Let’s look at the passage.
2
Pet. 3:9 The Lord is not slack
concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward,
not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
First,
let's notice what the passage doesn’t say. It doesn’t say that Jesus is
not willing that "any man who ever lived" should perish. This passage
specifically states who it is that Jesus does not will to perish. It says that
the Lord is not willing for any of “us” (the elect) to perish. After all, that
is who Peter is writing to:
2
Pet. 1:1
Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have
obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of
God and our Saviour Jesus Christ:
Peter
is writing to a specific group of people (the saved).
2
Peter 1:3 According
as his divine power hath given unto us all things that pertain unto life
and godliness, through the knowledge of him that hath called us to glory
and virtue:
Peter
refers to the people to whom he is writing as being “called”. As we saw earlier
in this article, the called is a reference to “the elect”,
those whom God has chosen to call savingly.
In
his previous epistle, Peter addressed these same people as:
1
Pet. 1:2
Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through
sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of
Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.
Peter
was writing to the elect. It is the elect that Jesus is longsuffering
toward, not willing that any of them should perish. In context, Peter is
explaining why it is taking so long for Jesus to come. His answer is that He still
has some people to save first (the elect), and He is not willing for any of them
to perish, so He can’t come back yet (until after they are saved).
So,
understanding the context, we see that this verse is talking about the elect.
2
Pet. 3:9
The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but
is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any [of us] should perish,
but that all should come to repentance.
But,
what about 1 Tim. 2:3-4, doesn’t it say that God is trying to save everyone?
No,
it doesn’t. Let’s look at the passage.
1
Tim. 2:3-4
For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God
our Saviour; Who will have all men to be saved, and
to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
To
whom do the words "all men" refer? Some say that it refers to every
single person on earth without exception. But this can’t be true, for we have
already demonstrated from numerous scriptures that it is not God's plan to save
everyone.
One
of the most important principles in interpreting scripture is that since all of
God's word is true (Ps. 119:160), we may not interpret any scripture in such a
way that would cause it to conflict with what the scriptures say elsewhere
(Matt. 4:7). So, we can’t interpret 1 Tim. 2:3-4 to be saying that God is
trying to save everyone when the scriptures say clearly in other places that He
is not. We simply can’t interpret this verse in a way which would cause it to
conflict with all of the other scriptures that have been set forth in this
article (which such an interpretation would).
So,
what is 1 Tim. 2:3-4 saying? Does the word "all" in scripture always
refer to all men without exception? What saith the
scriptures?
The
following was written by a man named Tony Warren. I am reusing it with
permission. Some reformatting has been done for emphasis.
Begin
Tony>>>>> ------------------
The
question is, does ALL always mean ALL in the bible
"OR" is it qualified? Does ALL always mean every single man without
exception, or is what it covers defined by Bible context and reference? The
"TRUTH" is that the word "ALL" is qualified in the
scriptures. for example:
Mark
1:5
"And there went out to him ALL the land of Judea, and they of
Jerusalem and were ALL baptized in the river Jordan"
Certainly
not every single man, woman, and child (bar none) in the Land of Judea went to
get baptized that day, correct? the "ALL"
there is qualified.
John
8:2
"And early in the morning he came again into the temple, and ALL
the people came unto him; and he sat down and taught them."
Again,
the "ALL" is qualified. Even though it says "ALL" it
doesn't mean that every single person came to listen to Jesus, the all is
qualified.
Acts 22:15 "For thou
(Paul) shalt be a witness unto ALL men of what thou hast seen or
heard."
Matthew 10:22 "And ye
shall be hated of ALL men for my name's sake."
John 3:26 "And they
came unto John and said unto him, Rabbi, he that was with thee beyond Jordan,
to whom thou bearest witness, behold, the same baptizeth, and ALL men came to him."
In
these scriptures we see "CLEARLY" that the word all does not
in these instances mean every man without exception. Either the word
"ALL" is being used in a sense of a hyperbole, referring to a very
large number but not everyone without exception, or it is being used to speak
of ALL men without distinction. And so to say "ALL" always means all
or should be understood to mean all in scripture is a misnomer.
<<<<<
End Tony ----------------------------
Let
take a look at the first of those passages.
Mark
1:4-5 John
did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the
remission of sins. And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea,
and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of
Jordan, confessing their sins.
If
we take the word “all” in this passage to mean every single person without
exception, then this passage would be saying that every single person in
Jerusalem and Judaea was baptized by John the baptist.
What is the problem with this? The problem is that Scripture contradicts such
an interpretation elsewhere.
Luke
7:29-30 And all the people that heard him, and the publicans, justified
God, being baptized with the baptism of John. But the Pharisees and lawyers
rejected the counsel of God against themselves, being not baptized of him.
The
Pharisees and lawyers (who were from Jerusalem and Judaea) were not
baptized by John. But Scripture says that all in Jerusalem and Judaea were. So,
“all” does not always refer to all men without exception regardless of what men
may teach. In Mark 1:4-5 it is used in the sense of hyperbole, referring to “a
large number of the people” from Jerusalem and Judaea. In other words, the vast
majority of those people were baptized by John.
Now,
let’s get back to 1 Timothy chapter 2.
If
a person is going to insist that the phrase "all men" in 1 Timothy 2
refers to all men everywhere without exception, they are going to have a number
of problems. First, they will have to re-interpret every passage in Scripture
that uses the phrase "all men" in the same way (including the ones
listed previously).
Secondly,
they will have to explain how all of the verses we have seen in this article
don’t actually mean what they say. For example, if 1 Tim. 2:3-4 is really
saying that God is trying to save all men everywhere - Then why does God harden
men's hearts so that they cannot believe and be saved? And that is just one
point of scripture. There are dozens.
Thirdly,
they will have to yank the verse from its very context in order to keep such a interpretation. Let me explain.
Let's
look at this passage in its context.
1 Tim. 2:1-4
1 I exhort
therefore, that, first of all, supplications, prayers, intercessions, and
giving of thanks, be made for all men;
2 For kings, and for all that are in authority; that we may
lead a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and honesty.
3 For this is
good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour;
4 Who will have all
men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
The
phrase "all men" occurs twice in the passage. However we interpret
the first usage of the phrase, to be consistent, we must also the second usage
the same way. So what does "all men" refer to in verse one? This
verse tells us that we are not only to pray for fellow believers, but also for
kings, and for all those in authority. In other words we are to pray for
"all types of men", not just for our fellow believers.
If
"all men" in this passage doesn't refer to "all types of
men" but rather refers to every single man everywhere without exception,
then we had better get busy because we have a lot of praying to do. God would
be commanding each of us to pray for every single individual on the earth. And
not to do so, would be to a sin of disobedience to God. Such an interpretation
is nonsensical.
Since
"all men" in verse 1 clearly refers to "all types of men",
it must refer to the same thing in verse 4. And that is consistent with the
teaching of the rest of Scripture. God does indeed desire to save "all
types" of men. From kings, to galley slaves, to Jews, to gentiles - God
saves people from all sorts of different backgrounds. He is no respecter of
persons.
Objection
#3
– Some say that if predestination is true, then there is no reason to witness
for everyone who is going to be saved will be saved anyway.
First,
we are to witness because God has commanded us to do so (Matt. 28:18-20; 2 Cor.
5:18-20; etc. etc.). To not witness is to disobey God. Not only that, it is to
be ashamed of Christ and be denied by Him at His second coming (Mark 8:38;
Matt. 10:33).
Why
does God want us to witness and preach the gospel? God wants us to preach the
gospel because He has not only ordained “that” certain men (the elect) would be
saved, but He has also ordained “the method” by with they would be saved (believing
the gospel).
1
Corinthians 1:21 For after that in
the wisdom of God the world by wisdom knew not God, it pleased God by
the foolishness of preaching to save them that believe.
2
Thessalonians 2:13 But we are bound to give thanks alway
to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the
beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the
Spirit and belief of the truth:
God
chose to save the elect “through” their believing the gospel. The second verse
isn’t saying that God chose them “because” they believed the gospel (Any more
than it could be saying that He chose them because they were sanctified by the
Holy Spirit. They would not have had the Holy Spirit before they were saved).
This verse is saying that God had, from the beginning, chosen the elect to
salvation and to bring them to that salvation “through” faith (belief in the
truth).
The
same God who ordained the salvation of the elect also ordained the means by
which that salvation would come to pass. He is sovereignly in control of the
whole process from beginning to end. Since we don't know which people are of
the elect and which aren't, we are to witness to everyone and leave the results
to God. God can, and sometimes does turn even the hardest of hearts unto Himself
(Prov. 21:1; 1 Tim. 1:15).
Will
all of the elect be saved? Yes, but that is not a reason to not witness but
rather the very reason for which we do.
2
Timothy 2:10 Therefore I endure all things for the elect's sakes, that
they may also obtain the salvation which is in Christ Jesus with eternal
glory.
Summary and
Conclusion
As
has been demonstrated in this article, the Bible does indeed teach
predestination. As a matter of fact, it has a lot to say about it. Toward the
beginning of the article, we began with the following preliminary and
incomplete definition of predestination.
Predestination
is an act of God whereby He chose certain people to be adopted as His children
(be saved) before the foundation of the world.
Based
upon what we have learned from God’s word in this article, we can now offer a
more complete definition of predestination.
Predestination is an act of
God which took place before foundation of the world, whereby He sovereignly
chose, from among the lump of lost humanity (all of whom would never come unto
him and be saved), to open the hearts of some (the elect / vessels of mercy)
regenerating them and giving them a new heart so that they would willingly come
to him in faith to be saved. Others (the non-elect / vessels of wrath) God
sovereignly chose to pass over and leave unto their own sinfulness that they
might reject Him and go to their just punishment (reprobation). Some get mercy,
some get justice, no one gets injustice.
We
have seen that God’s choice in electing some instead of others has nothing to
do with anything in man – not works (Rom. 9:11), nor foreseen faith (John
10:26), nor the will of man (Rom. 9:16). The only thing that scripture tells us
as to “why” God chose some and passed over others is simply that it was His
will and according to His purpose to do so.
Ephesians 1:5 Having predestinated
us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according
to the good pleasure of his will,
Ephesians
1:11 In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being
predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will:
Predestination
is completely and entirely the act of a sovereign God. The question of “why”
God chose some and not others rests in the secret and eternal counsels of God.
Isaiah 46:9-11
9
Remember
the former things of old: for I am God, and there is none else; I am
God, and there is none like me,
10
Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times the things
that are not yet done, saying, My counsel
shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure:
11
Calling
a ravenous bird from the east, the man that executeth
my counsel from a far country: yea, I have spoken it, I will also bring it
to pass; I have purposed it, I will also do it.
Acts
15:18 Known
unto God are all his works from the beginning of the world.
His
knowledge and ways are much higher than ours.
Isaiah
55:8-9 For my thoughts are not your thoughts, neither are your ways my
ways, saith the LORD. For as the heavens are
higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways, and my thoughts
than your thoughts.
Romans
11:33 O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of
God! how unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways
past finding out!
So,
we are to believe whatever God has revealed in His word (the Bible) regarding
predestination. We are not free to disbelieve or reject it any more than we are
free to reject or disbelieve anything else scripture teaches. The Bible is the
word of God and God alone (not us) has the final say on what is truth and what
is error. His word is to be the final authority in all matters of faith and
practice. We dare not set ourselves up as our own “gods” sitting in judgment
upon God’s word deciding which parts of it we will accept (believe) and which
parts of it we will not accept (not believe). As His followers, and as
“believers”, we are to believe whatever God’s word teaches.
Will
you believe what the Bible teaches about predestination?